Hi there,
I am studying the "Carmen Christi" (Php 2:5-11). And I am disturbed by something I have found out about the Greek word translated as "form" (morphe). And am hopeful that someone much more knowledgable with the Greek can help me with this.
All the commentaries I possess each say roughly the same thing about morphe. That it refers to the essence of nature. Hence when it says that Jesus is in the "form of God" it means that He possesses the very nature of God. Or in other words, that He is God.
However, in my study of the word I have discovered an inconsistency with this meaning.
First of all, the Greek word morphe is used three times in the New Testament. Twice in this Philippians passage and also once in Mark 16:12, "After that, He (Jesus) appeared in another form (morphe) to two of them as they walked and went into the country." (Mark 16:12) Obviously this does not mean that Jesus changed His nature or essence, but only changed His outward appearance so they would not be able to recognize Him.
Also, from its usage in the Septuagint, it also refers to the outward appearance and not to the inherent nature of being.
"A spirit glided past my face, and the hair on my body stood on end. It stopped, but I could not tell what it was. A form (morphe) stood before my eyes, and I heard a hushed voice (Job 4:15,16). Again, I think it is obvious that morphe is reffering to the outward appearance and not inherent nature.
"The carpenter measures with a line and makes an outline with a marker; he roughs it out with chisels and marks it with compasses. He shapes it in the form (morphe) of man, of man in all his glory, that it may dwell in a shrine" (Isa. 44:13). Obviously this is referring to outward appearance as well, and is not referring to the essential nature.
Another inconsistency is that the word is in compound words in the NT which again refer to an outward appearance/change.
"Having a form (morphosis) of godliness." (2Tim 3:5) This passage is talking about false Christians, who have an inner nature that is evil, but have an outward appearance of being godly.
On the Mount of Transfiguration, Christ was "transformed" (metamorphoomai) before the apostles (Matt. 17:2). I don't think Jesus' nature here was changed, but only His outward appearance was.
So from this understanding of morphe, that it is referring to the outward appearance, then why do commentators insist that the word refers to the inherent nature of being. Is there something I do not know about the Greek construction here that will explain this? I am only a beginner in Biblical Greek and so may be missing something.
Thanks for any help :)
I am studying the "Carmen Christi" (Php 2:5-11). And I am disturbed by something I have found out about the Greek word translated as "form" (morphe). And am hopeful that someone much more knowledgable with the Greek can help me with this.
All the commentaries I possess each say roughly the same thing about morphe. That it refers to the essence of nature. Hence when it says that Jesus is in the "form of God" it means that He possesses the very nature of God. Or in other words, that He is God.
However, in my study of the word I have discovered an inconsistency with this meaning.
First of all, the Greek word morphe is used three times in the New Testament. Twice in this Philippians passage and also once in Mark 16:12, "After that, He (Jesus) appeared in another form (morphe) to two of them as they walked and went into the country." (Mark 16:12) Obviously this does not mean that Jesus changed His nature or essence, but only changed His outward appearance so they would not be able to recognize Him.
Also, from its usage in the Septuagint, it also refers to the outward appearance and not to the inherent nature of being.
"A spirit glided past my face, and the hair on my body stood on end. It stopped, but I could not tell what it was. A form (morphe) stood before my eyes, and I heard a hushed voice (Job 4:15,16). Again, I think it is obvious that morphe is reffering to the outward appearance and not inherent nature.
"The carpenter measures with a line and makes an outline with a marker; he roughs it out with chisels and marks it with compasses. He shapes it in the form (morphe) of man, of man in all his glory, that it may dwell in a shrine" (Isa. 44:13). Obviously this is referring to outward appearance as well, and is not referring to the essential nature.
Another inconsistency is that the word is in compound words in the NT which again refer to an outward appearance/change.
"Having a form (morphosis) of godliness." (2Tim 3:5) This passage is talking about false Christians, who have an inner nature that is evil, but have an outward appearance of being godly.
On the Mount of Transfiguration, Christ was "transformed" (metamorphoomai) before the apostles (Matt. 17:2). I don't think Jesus' nature here was changed, but only His outward appearance was.
So from this understanding of morphe, that it is referring to the outward appearance, then why do commentators insist that the word refers to the inherent nature of being. Is there something I do not know about the Greek construction here that will explain this? I am only a beginner in Biblical Greek and so may be missing something.
Thanks for any help :)
