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GreggArchitect |
Just looked over your site . . . |
Lead | |
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Posts: 1 (07/30/08 13:48:35) |
...and the premise for all you say is great. Pristine Faith and Restoration are great themes....but how can you honestly think that The
Trinity is an original Christian doctrine "once delivered to the Saints". Jesus never taught it, Paul never taught it, Peter never taught
it.....nobody did until a couple hundren years after Jesus assended into Heaven. It is not being "pristine" and holding this
illogical, unintelligible and non-biblical conceot of God. Please answer this question. ~gregg
"Jesus is Messiah, the Son of God", so professed Peter and The Lord said that "the Father had revealed this to him"......what has changed?
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Roger |
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Posts: 1232 (08/07/08 06:42:53) PFRS Administrator |
GreggArchitect wrote: Gregg,
I beleive the Trinity is an original Christian doctrine because it is clearly taught in Scripture... 18 And Jesus came and spoke to them, saying, "All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth. 19 Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, 20 teaching them to observe all things that I have commanded you; and lo, I am with you always, even to the end of the age." Amen. Matthew 28 The grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the love of God, and the communion of the Holy Spirit be with you all. Amen. 2 Corinthians 13:14 6 This is He who came by water and blood-Jesus Christ; not only by water, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit who bears witness, because the Spirit is truth. 7 For there are three that bear witness in heaven: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit; and these three are one. 8 And there are three that bear witness on earth: the Spirit, the water, and the blood; and these three agree as one. 1 John 5 Roger |
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GreggArchitect |
The idea of ONE God in 3 persons is never taught in the NT ! | ||
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Posts: 2 (08/12/08 10:20:21) |
1 John 5:7, is agreed by all scolars to be a corrupted verse, appearing in no MS before the 1600's.
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crazy mark |
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Posts: 246 (08/12/08 11:58:54) |
Gregg, And so how do you explain John 1:1? How do you explain Thomas's reaction to Christ "My Lord and my God"? Orthodox Christianity encompasses the universal belief in the doctrine of the Holy Trinity. ANY belief otherwise falls into the catagory of the unorthodox.
Or, in other words, cultish beliefs. The Mormans, Jehovah's Witnesses, The Way International, The Children of God, Islam, Budhism, Hinduism,etc....etc all
hold to your anti-christ beliefs. To which of these cults do you belong? Or do you belong to the Cult of Gregg?
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GreggArchitect |
My affiliation is . . . | ||
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Posts: 3 (08/12/08 22:48:58) |
. . . the living head of the spiritual body of Christ, who is Jesus the Messiah, the Son of the Father, the one "God has made both Lord and Christ"
(Acts 2:36) God made Jesus all that he was.
In John 1:1, why is the term "logos" used ? That is the key to the interpretation. Logos means "the word, the plan, the blueprint". It was in God's mind, with God from the very beginning, it was God's preview of what He would work out through His people Israel, and how it would be worked out to it's ultimate when Jesus was born and fullfilled His God given mission as the Messiah.. It is God's Wisdom...first in God's mind and then, being spoken by the prophets and written in the scriptures and then becoming flesh when God created His Son Jesus in the womb of Mary. Jesus was "His only begotten Son", the image of the invisible God......God is invisible, like the Lord Jesus says, "no man has seen God at any time"...not even Jesus did, but Jesus believed in God and His word and always did the will of Him who sent him. All the verses that point to a pre-existance of Jesus are to be understood in terms of God's foreknowledge. How could he possibly exist before his birth? How could God shrink down and become a baby? Did He have omniscience when he was 2 years old? Of course not........he grew in wisdom and knowledge and in the favor of God and men. Does that sound like something God needed to do? Now, there are occasions when the term "god" is used of someone other than actual God himself. The "gods" of the Old Testament are called "gods" (Elohim) but are not literally God. Psalm 82 shows how "children of God" (men) can figuratively be called gods. Jesus quotes this on John. And in Hebrews 2, where God says to His Son "your throne O God, is forever and ever" is a quote from Psalm 45, which is a scripture that pertrays a human king, which Jesus is! The most highly exalted position to ever be had by any human. God honors His Son because he always does His will....not his own will. If Jesus is God (the second person of the trinity?!?) how does Gos have more than one will? How is that possible? It isn't. God is ONE and His will is one. Not 3 in 1 and not a mythical trinity. If He was 3, He would have to clearly say that....and He never did. Orthodoxy is cloaked in centuries of traditions, and tradtion is often an enemy of the truth, just as it was when Jesus walked. When Thomas calls Jesus his Lord and God, he finally recognized that God was in Jesus and has raised His Son from the dead. How could God possible die? Yet in many many places Jesus is said to have died....and when he was dead he really was dead. No life. Then God starts the new creation by raising His Son Jesus from the dead and creats in Him a living spirit...never to die again. If you say Jesus didn't really die, but lived for those 3 days in a dis-embodied spritual form, then you don't believe he really died, which the scripture is very clear about. The JW's say Jesus is an angel before he became the Son, that's not right. There have always been many who questioned and rejected the 1700 year old heresy of the trinity. It was not original doctrine but happened much later....so say even the Roman Caths, who were the guardians and enforcers of the erroneous doctrin through the dark ages. Many lost their life when they opposed it.......but error does not like the truth, darkness does not like the light. Cultish? I am just a believer in the simplicity of Jesus and in the "pristine" teaching of the Bible. Nothing added, nothing taken away. "Trinity" is clearly an addition, no matter how you dress it up in an orthodox cloak. It is poly-theistic, plain and simple. It is to be rejected and not comforming to the teaching of Jesus or his apostles. I have been involved in many groups, some "orthodox" and some not. No affiliation now....except with my Lord and Saviour, the one who is returning one day, and every day is one day closer to that day. I am not at all "anti-christ", but very pro-Christ, pro-Messiah, the real Jesus who is not the invention of a Roman council to pervert the truth of the revealed identity of Jesus, the one and only Son of the Living God! God bless his holy name and may his return be soon! ~g |
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DayOfTheLord |
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Posts: 1504 (08/13/08 03:46:34) |
Very Convenient just to dismiss all the scripture as "corrupted", if so, then how can you trust ANY of it? Perhaps there really are many more
God's, and the whole Bible is just corrupt?
Jesus claimed at least two different times that I can think of as being pre-existant, before He was incarnated. John 8:58 KJV (58) Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. John 17:5 KJV (5) And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was. John 1:2-3 KJV (2) The same was in the beginning with God. (3) All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. All these passages, and others are impossible if Jesus weren't pre-existant. I suppose all these are corrupt as well? |
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GreggArchitect |
Please, to be "Pristine" you must abandon the myth of the Trinity! | ||
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Posts: 4 (08/13/08 11:18:57) |
How did Jesus pre-exist? HOW?
Revelation 13:8 gives us the clue to how he did: "the Lamb slain from the foundation of the world. If any man have an ear, let him hear." How was Jesus (the lamb of God, not God of God) slain (sacraficed, killed, crucified) before the foundation of the world? The asnwer is obvious, in God's Plan, in his mind, in his councels. This Plan, this word was with God in the beginning. Not is actuality yet, but in preparation for what would come to be. That is the "glory which Jesus had with the Father before the world was" It is in prophecy, to be realized when Jesus comes back and finally sets up his Kingdom, which God promises will last forever. What a day that will be! The "him" of John 1:3 is God......the Father, not Jesus. Not all scripture is corrupt, of course not, but all the notations are there to point out the variation in the manuscripts. Thank God that modern biblical scholarship brings these to light. This way we can correctly eliminate 1 John 5:7, and learn the lesson it teaches. Same applies to 1 Timothy 3:16. Not all the variations are significant, but it is significant to go from One God to Three in one. Did Jesus teach the doctrine of the Trinity? Where? Matthew 28 is not the Trinity, even if I am wrong about it being original text. It simply does not fit......why didn't they baptize in this triple name in the other records in the Bible? That's the real question ! And what is the purpose of the Gospel of John? John 20:31 answers that question: "But these are written, that you might believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you might have life through his name." Life by believing in the name of Jesus Messiah (Yeshua Meshiach) is the point of the Gospel. He is the Christ (the Messiah), the Son of the living God.......that is what I believe. Not tradition, no creeds, no orthodoxy, no added words, just the simplicity of the truth which is in the scriptures. Where are we ever instructed in the scripture to believe that God is Three, and that Jesus is "God the Son, the Second of the Three"? Search the Book of Acts....why does this very strange doctrine never come up? Did they beleive in the Trinity in the First Century? You'll have a hard job proving that. Where is it found? If we are to believe this very different doctrine, different than anything previously revealed, where are we told to do so? It doesn't exist! Without the scripture ever calling Jesus "God the Son", it is presumtuous, and very religious to pin that kind of title on him. It should never have happened and to be pristine, you should not do it either. "Now this is eternal life: that they may know you [Father], the only true God, and Jesus Christ [Messiah], whom you have sent." ~John 17:3 Jesus says the Father is the ONLY TRUE GOD = the only one who is truely God. Others may be called "God", the Sons of God (Psalm 82:6), Satan (2 Cor 4:4), and even Jesus (Heb 2), but the lips of the savious clearly proclaim that The Father is the Only True God. Greater than Jesus....that settles it for me . . . I beleive Jesus! Please, I commend you to the simplicity that is in Christ, just believe what is written, do not add and do not subtract. How does the concept of the Trinity not add something to the Words of God? It surely does. Proverbs 30:5-6 "Every word of God is pure:
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DayOfTheLord |
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Posts: 1508 (08/13/08 13:09:46) |
Is it not true that Gen. 1:1 starts out by declaring that in the beginning the Gods created... We have God the Father, tT speaks of the Spirit of God hovering,
and we know that nothing was made without Jesus by Paul.
Jesus was the Lamb slain, because They (the Godhead) knew beforehand what would occur and had already put the plan of redemption into place. Did Jesus teach the doctrine of the Trinity? Where? According to Early Christian writings (the early church fathers), they did baptized in the three names. Simply baptizing in the name of Jesus, was meant to convey the authority from which they baptize. It wasn't until Arius that the oneness position was taught, if I recall hisotry correctly. Life by believing in the name of Jesus Messiah (Yeshua Meshiach) is the point of the Gospel.Scripture says that Jesus IS the life, He IS Eternal Life. 1 John 5:11 (11) And this is the testimony, that God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. 1 John 5:20 (20) And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true; and we are in him who is true, in his Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God and eternal life. Titus 2:13 (13) waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, You say don't add tot he words, but you should not take away either. I don't really go for calling it "the trinity". I believe that Jesus has always existed and has always been the Son of God, this is not the view of PFRS. I'm a little different on some things than they are. We agree mostly, but on some minor points, we disagree. So why does the Bible declare that in the beginning the Gods (plural) created the heavens and the earth? How are we to understand this? |
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DayOfTheLord |
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Posts: 1509 (08/13/08 13:10:47) |
Is it not true that Gen. 1:1 starts out by declaring that in the beginning the Gods created... We have God the Father, tT speaks of the Spirit of God hovering,
and we know that nothing was made without Jesus by Paul.
Jesus was the Lamb slain, because They (the Godhead) knew beforehand what would occur and had already put the plan of redemption into place. Did Jesus teach the doctrine of the Trinity? Where? According to Early Christian writings (the early church fathers), they did baptized in the three names. Simply baptizing in the name of Jesus, was meant to convey the authority from which they baptize. It wasn't until Arius that the oneness position was taught, if I recall hisotry correctly. Life by believing in the name of Jesus Messiah (Yeshua Meshiach) is the point of the Gospel.Scripture says that Jesus IS the life, He IS Eternal Life. 1 John 5:11 (11) And this is the testimony, that God gave us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. 1 John 5:20 (20) And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true; and we are in him who is true, in his Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God and eternal life. Titus 2:13 (13) waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, You say don't add tot he words, but you should not take away either. I don't really go for calling it "the trinity". I believe that Jesus has always existed and has always been the Son of God, this is not the view of PFRS. I'm a little different on some things than they are. We agree mostly, but on some minor points, we disagree. So why does the Bible declare that in the beginning the Gods (plural) created the heavens and the earth? How are we to understand this? |
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rhawes73 |
Re: Just looked over your site . . . | ||
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Posts: 24 (08/13/08 14:57:30) |
Gregg,
If Jesus is not God, I'm curious how you would explain the following: John 20:26-29 - "After eight days His disciples were again inside, and Thomas with them. Jesus *came, the doors having been shut, and stood in their midst and said, "Peace {be} with you." Then He *said to Thomas, "Reach here with your finger, and see My hands; and reach here your hand and put it into My side; and do not be unbelieving, but believing." Thomas answered and said to Him, "My Lord and my God!" Jesus *said to him, "Because you have seen Me, have you believed? Blessed {are} they who did not see, and {yet} believed." (NASB)Note that Thomas called Jesus "my God", and Jesus did not correct him. Why not? Other passages:
Exodus 3:14 - God identified Himself to Moses as "I AM", and Jesus later referred to Himself in this same manner: John 8:58 -
"Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am." The Jews clearly understood what He meant here, because they took up stones to kill Him for speaking what they thought was blasphemy. Again, in John
10:30, Jesus claimed equality with the Father - "I and the Father are one." Again the Jews tried to kill
Him, and when He asked them why, they said, "Because you, being a man, make yourself out to be
God." On this same specific topic, note also the reaction of those who came to take Jesus when He said "I am," in
the Garden of Gethsemane: John 18:6 - So when He said to them, "I am {He,}" they drew back and fell to the
ground."
Isaiah 42:8 - "I am the Lord [Yahweh], that is my name; I will not give my glory to another" - Yet, in John 17:5, Jesus prayed: "Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began." What right does Jesus have to the glory that belongs to the Father alone? Isaiah 44:6 - "I am the first, and I am the last; apart from me there is no God." But this title is also used of Jesus several times in the book of Revelation: Rev 1:11 - "I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last." Rev 2:8, Jesus introduces Himself to the church in Smyrna as "The first and the last, who was dead, and has come to life." Rev 1:17 - "Fear not; I am the first and the last." And lastly in Rev 22:13 - "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last." Jesus created the universe (John 1:3), forgave sins (Mark 2:5), accepted worship (Matthew 8:2), claimed the power to give eternal life (John 10:27-28), and claimed ownership of everything that belonged to the Father (including His glory) - John 17:5. The apostle Paul called Jesus, "the fullness of the Godhead bodily," in Col 2:9, and the Father commanded the angels to "worship Him" - Hebrews 1:6. Isaiah 45:23-24 - "I have sworn by Myself, The word has gone forth from My mouth in righteousness And will not turn back, That to Me every knee will bow, every tongue will swear allegiance." Compare this to Philippians 2:9-11 - "Therefore also God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those who are in heaven, and on earth, and under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father." Notice that Paul even uses the term "God the Father." In Hebrews 1, God the Father clearly calls Jesus both "God" and "Lord": Hebrews 1:8 - "But unto the Son [he saith], Thy throne, O God, [is] for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness [is] the sceptre of thy kingdom. Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, [even] thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows. And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands." The New Testament is clear: Jesus is God, but it is equally clear that He is not the Father. Lastly, the Holy Spirit is also called "God" in Acts 5:3-4 - "But Peter said, "Ananias, why has Satan filled your heart to lie to the Holy Spirit...You have not lied to men but to God." The word Trinity is not found in the Bible, but we do have words like "Godhead," "God the Father," the occurrence in Matthew 28:19 where Father, Son and Holy Spirit appear together, and passages where in Jesus and the Holy Spirit are referred to as "God". How do you explain these passages, and the unity thereof, apart from the Trinity? If the Trinity is not biblical, then Jesus and those who worshiped Him were blasphemers, and they were either lying or else mistaken about the nature of the Holy Spirit. There is no way around this. - Robert |
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GreggArchitect |
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Posts: 5 (08/13/08 20:55:38) |
Read the scriptures correctly, Mark,
1 John 5:20 And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know Him who is true; [the Father, not Jesus His Son] and we are in Him who is true, [the Father] in His Son Jesus Christ. [the Father] He is the true God and eternal life. [the Father] This completely agrees with the words of Jesus in John 17:3 "Now this is eternal life: that they may know you [Father], the only true God, and Jesus Christ [Messiah], whom you have sent." Jesus says that His Father is the ONLY TRUE GOD ! Now, when the writer of Hebrew quotes Psalm 45, and calls Jesus "God" on his own throne, we are prompted to go back and look at the Psalm to get the context.
Read it and see for yourself, who is the subject of the Psalm?
It is a King elevated to a high position and therefore God figuratively calls him "God"....just like in Psalm 86, the Sons of God are called Gods, figuratively. If it isn't figurative then you have 2 Gods.....and Jesus says there is just one, and that is his Father and no other. It is not wrong at all for Jesus, who is lesser than the Father, (he said it) to be titled "God". There is only one true God and that is the Fatehr of Jesus. The Father is God as a noun. The Holy Spirit is God as a verb....or it is God's gift "holy spirit", which the Father pours out on all flesh as his promised gift. How could the "gift" be God? It isn't God, it is the new spiritual birth Holy Spirit giving birth to holy spirit, the one word meaning 2 things....we do this with language all the time. The Father is Holy, the Father is Spirit, the Father is the Holy Spirit! There is only ONE GOD ! Psalm 45 My heart is overflowing with a good theme;
I recite my composition concerning the King;
My tongue is the pen of a ready writer.
2 You are fairer than the sons of men;
Grace is poured upon Your lips;
Therefore God has blessed You forever.
3 Gird Your sword upon Your thigh, O
Mighty One,
With Your glory and Your majesty.
4 And in Your majesty ride prosperously
because of truth, humility, and righteousness;
And Your right hand shall teach You awesome things.
5 Your arrows are sharp in the heart of the King's
enemies;
The peoples fall under You.
6 Your throne, O God, is forever and
ever;
A scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your kingdom.
7 You love righteousness and hate wickedness;
Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You
With the oil of gladness more than Your companions.
8 All Your garments are scented with myrrh and aloes and
cassia,
Out of the ivory palaces, by which they have made You glad.
9 Kings' daughters are among Your honorable
women;
At Your right hand stands the queen in gold from Ophir.
10 Listen, O daughter, Consider and incline your ear;
Forget your own people also, and your father's house;
11 So the King will greatly desire your beauty;
Because He is your Lord, worship Him.
12 And the daughter of Tyre will come with a
gift;
The rich among the people will seek your favor.
13 The royal daughter is all glorious within the
palace;
Her clothing is woven with gold.
14 She shall be brought to the King in robes of many
colors;
The virgins, her companions who follow her, shall be brought to You.
15 With gladness and rejoicing they shall be brought;
They shall enter the King's palace.
16 Instead of Your fathers shall be Your sons,
Whom You shall make princes in all the earth.
17 I will make Your name to be remembered in all
generations;
Therefore the people shall praise You forever and ever.
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Roger |
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Posts: 1233 (08/14/08 08:30:20) PFRS Administrator |
GreggArchitect wrote: Gregg, It would seem you have all your bases covered. If a Scripture clearly says that Jesus is God, then you can simply say it is figurative (non-literal). And if the figurative explanation won't work, then you can just say it is speaking of God's foreknowledge (another non-literal explanation). And if neither of these non-literal explanations will work, then you can always declare the text to be corrupt. But this is hardly allowing the Scriptures to speak for themselves. GreggArchitect wrote: Before I quoted 1 John 5:7, I was well aware of the textual controversy. It is NOT true that "all scholars are agreed" that 1 John 5:7 was added to the text. At least "some scholars" believe that it was deleted from the text by heretics. In any case, you are mistaken that it didn't appear in any manuscript before the 1600's. The witness of the early church fathers proves that it appeared in their manuscripts of the New Testament in the third century. Cyprian wrote in 250 A.D., The spouse of Christ cannot be adulterous; she is uncorrupted and pure. She knows one home; she guards with chaste modesty the sanctity of one couch. She keeps us for God. She appoints the sons whom she has born for the kingdom. Whoever is separated form the Chruch and is joined to an adulteress, is separated from the promises of the Chruch; nor can he who forsakes the Church of Christ attain to the rewards of Christ. He is a stranger; he is profane; he is an enemy. He can no longer have God for his Father, who has not the Church for his mother. If any one could escape who was outside the ark of Noah, then he also may escape who shall be outside of the church. The Lord warns, saying, "He who is not with me is against me, and he who gathereth not with me scattereth." He who breaks the peace and the concord of Christ, does so in opposition to Christ; he who gathereth elsewhere than in the church, scatters the Chruch of Christ. The Lord says, "I and the Father are one;" and again it is written of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, "And these three are one." And does any one believe that this unity which htus comes from the divine strength and coheres in celestial sacraments, can be divided in the Church, and can be separated by the parting asuder of opposing wills? He who does not hld this unity does not hold God's law, does not hold the faith of the Father and of the Son, does not hold life and salvation. This is obviously a quotation of 1 John 5:7 and it appeared in the New Testament used by Cyprian in 250 A.D. That's older than ANY existing manuscript of 1 John and it's a lot earler than 1600. Regarding Matthew 28:19, the evidence is even more conclusive. Irenaeus, who lived in 120 - 202 A.D. wrote this, It certainly was in the power of the apostles to declare that Christ descended upon Jesus, or that the so-called superior Saviour came down upon the dispensational one, or he who is from the invisible places upon him from the Demiurge; but they neither knew nor said anything of the kind: for, had they known it, they would have also certainly stated it. But what really was the case, that did they record, that the Spirit of God as a dove descended upon Him; this Spirit, of whom it was declared by Isaiah, "And the Spirit of God shall rest upon HIm," as I have already said. And again: "The Spirit of the Lord is upon Me, because He hath anointed Me." That is the Spirit of whom the Lord declares, For it is not ye that speak, but the Spirit of your Father which speaketh in you." And again, giving to the disciples the power of regeneration into God, He said to them, "Go and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit." For God promised, that in the last times He would pour Him [the Spirit] upon His servants and handmaids, that they might prophesy; wherefore He did also descend upon the Son of God, made the Son of man, becoming accustomed in fellowship with Him to dwell in the human race, to rest with human beings, and to dwell in the workmanship of God, working the will of the Father in them, and renewing them from their old habits into the newness of Christ. Against Heresies Book III Chapter 17 Again, what this proves is that the Trinitarian formula in Matthew 28:19 appeared in manuscripts of the New Testament in the second century. Gregg, you need to be aware that the Gnostic heretics were actively working to corrupt the text of the New Testament from the very beginning. By denying the Deity of Jesus Christ and by declaring the Scriptures that prove His Deity to be spurious, you are taking your place alongside the likes of Marcion. Irenaeus wrote that Marcion was particularly infamous for corrupting the text of Scripture. Irenaeus wrote that he "multilates the Gospel which is according to Luke... dismembered the Epistles of Paul... and passages from the prophetical writings." He "furnished his disciples not with the Gospel, but merely a fragment of it." Irenaeus further wrote of Marcion that he was "the only one who has dared openly to mutilate the Scriptures." It is significant that Irenaeus accused Marcion primarily of deleting portions of Scripture rather than adding to them, although doubtless he was guilty of both. Why is this significant? Because modern textual critics ("all scholars" whom you referred to earlier) believe that "shorter readings" are more likely to be original than "longer readings." This is what is taught in seminary courses on textual criticism and it is what I was taught when I was taking those courses. Consequently, textual critics are biased to regard longer readings as "later additions to the text." But this is exactly the OPPOSITE of what the early Christians - who were contemporaries of those heretics who were corrupting the text - said was happening! I choose to believe those Christians who witnessed it happening rather than modern scholars who, 20 centuries after the fact, claim to be able to reconstruct the chain of events. Roger |
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DayOfTheLord |
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Posts: 1512 (08/14/08 10:37:34) |
Roger,
Great Post, its funny how people come along and act as if we've never heard these arguments before. If I only had a nickle.... |
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Butch5 |
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Posts: 468 (08/18/08 07:27:31) |
GreggArchitect wrote: Hi Greg, From reading your posts it appears to me that you don't have a correct grasp of the doctrine of the trinity. You said,
I think the confusion comes in with the understanding of the word God. Jesus and the Father are not the same in person hood. They are distinct from each
other, as is the Holy Spirit. I think it is a misunderstanding of John 1:1 that is confusing. Many people read John 1:1 like this,
God is invisible, like the Lord Jesus says, "no man has seen God at any time"...not even Jesus did,I think this shows that Jesus did in fact only not only see God (the Father) but existed before He was born. John 6:46 ( KJV ) 46Not that any man hath seen the Father, save he which is of God, he hath seen the Father. Scripture says no man has seen God ( the Father) yet Jesus said He has.
Last Edited By: Butch5
08/18/08 07:43:00.
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GreggArchitect |
Jesus in the Book of Acts | ||
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Posts: 6 (08/19/08 23:07:23) |
While the discussion about what the Church Fathers discussed is interesting, it proves nothing doctrinally, since what they wrote is not accepted as inspired.
The Book of Acts is, and it shows how Jesus was presented to those who would believe. Not one mention of a 3-in-1 God, but a consistent and very simple and
clear presentation of Jesus as the Messiah, the Son of God and the promised King of Israel that the Father sent and that was rejected and killed, but God
raised from him from the dead. To believe this was the crux of salvation in his name. Nothing at all about him being "God the Son", the trinity of
any such thing. All those creeds and doctrine came later and do not qualify as "pristine". I love the premise of this fellowship, but once you fall
into the traditions and the orthodoxy of the later creeds you have lost the right to call yourself pristine. Too bad, really.
"I (the eunuch) believe that Jesus is Messiah, the Son of God." Acts 8:37
Immediately he (Paul) preached the Jesus Messiah in the synagogues, that He is the Son of God.
Acts 9:20
"he (Paul) vigorously refuted the Jews publicly, showing from the Scriptures that Jesus is the Messiah. Acts 18:2
He (Jesus) said to them, "But who do you say that I am?"
Simon Peter answered and said, "You are the Christ [the Messiah], the Son of the living
God."
Jesus answered and said to him, "Blessed are you, Simon Bar-Jonah,
for flesh and blood has not revealed this to you, but My Father who is in heaven." Nothing about the "God the Son" or the "Trinity".... ...so if God dosn't see fit to put it into the scriptures, it wasn't meant to be there.
To believe the Trinity doctrine is too complicated and gives a haedache!
Jesus and the Gospel are simple and provide peace and eases the heart. "But I fear, lest somehow, as the serpent deceived Eve by his craftiness, so your minds may be corrupted from the simplicity that is in Christ. For if he who comes preaches another Jesus whom we have not preached, or if you receive a different spirit which you have not received, or a different gospel which you have not accepted......" 2 Cor. 11:2-3 Jesus is the promised Messiah, the Son of the Living God, the Son of Yahweh, the Second Adam, the Perfect Man, the Son of Man and the Prmised Seed, the Saviour and the returning King of Kings and Lord of Lords! He is The Word of God, He lived victoriously over sin and always did the will of his Father, He suffered and died for our sins, and he died! He was dead, his life left him for us. (God cannot die....not possible) We owe him our allegence and our love and can call him The Mighty One, God's perfect image in human form, but he is not God himself, equal to the Father, and never was. Come swiftly Lord Jesus and end the debate and the contentions and shine the truth into all hearts forever. ~g |
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rhawes73 |
Re: Just looked over your site . . . | ||
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Posts: 26 (08/20/08 06:46:29) |
GreggArchitect wrote: And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding,Gregg, If God is in fact a triune being consisting of Father, Son and Holy Spirit (distinct in persons but one in essence) then there is no problem here. Yes, the Father is God. But the Son and the Holy Spirit are also God. Thus a statement about the deity of any of them individually (for example, "The Holy Spirit is the only true God"), or corporately ("The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are the only true God") is true by definition, for God is a triune being. For this reason, Jesus was able to call the Father "God" and, at the same time, distinguish Himself from the Father, and yet not diminish His own deity. There is nothing contradictory here, nothing that invalidates the Trinity, either by outright statement or by logical implication. Jesus' statements in these passages also underscore the New Testament teaching that He subordinated Himself in the incarnation. It wasn't that He surrendered His divinity somehow, but that He "humbled Himself" and became both our savior and our example. Philippians 2:5-8 - "Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross." In this passage, Paul clearly tells us that Jesus was equal (isos - "equal, in quantity or quality") to "God" (usually a reference to the Father in the N.T.) prior to His incarnation. Now, I'm sure you would agree that God is a unique being. Logically, He must be; for, the fundamental attributes ascribed to Him: omniscience, omnipotence, and omnipresence, are, by definition, absolute, and that which is absolute is, by necessity, solitary. You can no more have two things that are both absolute in knowledge, power, or presence than you can have two North Poles. Therefore, the only way in which it could be logically said that Jesus could be equal with God (the Father) is if He is one with the Father in some way. As it happens, this is exactly what Paul tells us when he says that Jesus was "in the form of God." "the form of God" - morphe theos in the Greek. Regarding morphe, Vines Expository Dictionary says the following: denotes "the special or characteristic form or feature" of a person or thing; it is used with particular significance in the NT, only of Christ, in Phl 2:6,7, in the phrases "being in the form of God," and "taking the form of a servant." An excellent definition of the word is that of Gifford: "morphe is therefore properly the nature or essence, not in the abstract, but as actually subsisting in the individual, and retained as long as the individual itself exists. ... Thus in the passage before us morphe Theou is the Divine nature actually and inseparably subsisting in the Person of Christ. ... For the interpretation of 'the form of God' it is sufficient to say that"I and my Father are one." - John 10:30. Distinct, but equal. This is the heart of the doctrine of the Trinity, and it is the only explanation that makes complete sense when you compare what Jesus said about Himself and the Father. Anything else is either gobbledygook or blasphemy. Also, I'm curious to know how you think Jesus could humble Himself or give up that which was rightfully His if He existed only in God's "counsels" prior to the incarnation? Only an actual person can humble himself. It seems to me that if Jesus existed only in God's mind at that time, that He would have been fully formed for one purpose and, therefore, would not have had a former state to give up and would not have needed to humble Himself to serve His intended role. By way of example (I don't intend any disrespect here), to say that Christ was created in the mind of God and yet had to put His own will aside in order to do the Father's will would be roughly equivalent to saying that my computer has to humble itself to work for me, when the truth is that it was designed for that sole purpose. Your view of Jesus makes Him more of a tool than a person, in my opinion. GreggArchitect wrote:Psalm 86, the "ye are gods" passage. Yes, I'm familiar with it, and, yes, the usage of the term "god" is figurative in it. But this won't save your argument with regard to Hebrews 1 because the language used in that passage can only apply to deity. Start a few verses before the quotation from Psalm 45: Hebrews 1:1-2 - "God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets, Hath in these last days spoken unto us by [his] Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds." Who "made the worlds"? Who is the Creator of all things? Genesis 1:1 - "In the beginning, God created the heavens and the earth." Genesis 2:4 - "These [are] the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the LORD God made the earth and the heavens." Psalm 102:24-25 - " I say, "O my God, do not take me away in the midst of my days, Your years are throughout all generations. "Of old You founded the earth, And the heavens are the work of Your hands." (NASB) Isaiah 48:12-13 - "Listen to Me, O Jacob,
And Israel, My called:
I am He, I am the First,
I am also the Last.
Indeed My hand has laid the foundation of the earth,
And My right hand has stretched out the heavens;
When I call to them,
They stand up together." (NKJV)
The Bible clearly tells us that God is the Creator of all things. Notice in the last passage I listed where God says that His own hand laid the foundation of the earth. Now, as a spirit God does not have physical hands, so, yes, that is a figurative reference, but the statement that God Himself did the work of creation is not figurative. How does this fit in with the N.T. passages where we're told that Jesus created all things? You think that John 1:3 is a reference to the Father, so what about Colossians 1:15-18? "He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist. And He is the head of the body, the church, who is the beginning, the firstborn from the dead, that in all things He may have the preeminence. For it pleased the Father that in Him all the fullness should dwell..." (NKJV) This passage is quite obviously referring to Jesus, and it ascribes the act of creation to Him (indeed, it says that all things actually consist in Him). Yet, how can Jesus have created that which God says He created Himself? Maybe John 1:3 isn't corrupt after all? Now, going back to Hebrews it could be argued that Jesus was God's "hand", His instrument in the act of creation, but this still contradicts God's repeated statements that He created everything Himself, and it would also present another problem for you in that you don't think that Jesus existed prior to the incarnation. Hebrews 1:8-10 - "But of the Son {He says,} "YOUR THRONE, O GOD, IS FOREVER AND EVER, AND THE RIGHTEOUS SCEPTER IS THE SCEPTER OF HIS KINGDOM. "YOU HAVE LOVED RIGHTEOUSNESS AND HATED LAWLESSNESS; THEREFORE GOD, YOUR GOD, HAS ANOINTED YOU WITH THE OIL OF GLADNESS ABOVE YOUR COMPANIONS." And, "YOU, LORD, IN THE BEGINNING LAID THE FOUNDATION OF THE EARTH, AND THE HEAVENS ARE THE WORKS OF YOUR HANDS." (NASB) In these verses the Father not only refers to the Son as "God", but He also calls Him "Lord" and ascribes the creation to Him. The Son is the one whom the Father says "laid the foundation" and made everything as "the works of your hands." Compare these descriptions to Psalm 102 and Isaiah 48 as I quoted them above, wherein we are told that God did these things Himself. Either the Son must be God, distinct yet equal to the Father, or we have a serious problem. - Robert
Last Edited By: rhawes73
08/20/08 12:43:16.
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Butch5 |
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Posts: 469 (08/30/08 17:11:50) |
Thanks Robert, that was a very informative post, I enjoyed it very much.
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GreggArchitect |
The simplicity of Jesus | ||
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Posts: 7 (08/31/08 07:43:16) |
There is nothing simple or enlightening about trying to understand the Trinity, and all the added doctrines that result from it. There is simplicity and great
enlightenment when we see the words of Jesus with the simple profound truth it brings.
"The Father is greater than I" - I just believe what Jesus said is true. "There is one God, the Father" - very simple "..that they may know YOU, the ONLY TRUE GOD, and Jesus the Messiah, whom YOU have sent" ~John 17:3 All other verses can be interpreted upon this basic simple and fundamental premise, that there is just ONE TRUE God, the Father of Jesus, and Jesus is His unique created Son who was born by the creative act and power of that ONE God, who is Holy and who is Spirit, who is The Holy Spirit (no need to make Him into a 3rd person). As the Som of God, Jesus is human, and teaches us how to be like himself. Not that we can be God, but we can be "Sons of God", just like he was. Truth is so very simple.....the traditions of men make things very complicated and incomprehensive, and the Trinity doctrine is just that, incomprehensive and simple not scriptural, no matter how you might try to weave it into the scripture. But, the discussions of the scripture will and must continue until the Messiah, the Son of God returns and makes all things right. He returns as King of kings and Lord of lords, and will receive the Kingdom that the Father, his God and our God has given to him. That day is coming! ~gregg |
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Butch5 |
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Posts: 470 (08/31/08 16:42:43) |
Just a quick question Gregg,
How do you interpret the title of "King of Kings and Lord of Lords" being applied to both God the Father and to Jesus? |
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GreggArchitect |
I can find 6 places where that expression is used: | ||
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Posts: 8 (08/31/08 20:50:31) |
I see that the scripture uses this title of more than one person:
Ezekiel 26:7 NKJV
Daniel 2:37 NKJV
1 Timothy 6:13 - 15 NKJV
Revelation 19:16 NKJV
In Timothy I see it seems to refer to the Father, but it may actually be refering to Jesus.
There is in these verses a clear reference to Jesus being "evidently" inferior to the Father without qualification.
He did not "grasp at" equality, like Adam and Eve did when they chose to disobey, or like Satan did when he became proud in his heart. Instead,
he became humble, realizing that this would be living righteously and loving God as God desired.
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Butch5 |
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Posts: 471 (09/01/08 15:42:53) |
The reference to 1 Timothy6:13-15 is most definitely a reference to the Father. 1 Timothy 6:14-16 ( KJV ) 14That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ: 15Which in his times he shall show, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords; 16Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.Who alone has immortality, dwelling in unapproachable light, whom no man has seen? This
is a reference to the Father, it cannot be Christ as men have seen Christ.
Last Edited By: Butch5
09/01/08 15:56:24.
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